NEWS TODAY 11.12.2024

 

HC relief for law students with low attendance

HC relief for law students with low attendance 

11.12.2024

Mumbai : Bombay High Court directed the Govt Law College to accept and evaluate the internal assessments of two final-year students being denied such assessment by the college on grounds of zero and low attendance. One student had zero attendance, and the other had 9%. They are pursuing a five-year BLS LLB course. 

The petitioners, through advocate Samaa Shah, contended that as per the Credit Based Evaluation System of Mumbai University, 60 marks are for written examinations, while 40 marks are for internal assessment. The internal assessment must be completed by Dec 16, 2024, said the HC division bench of Justices A S Chandurkar and Rajesh Patil after also hearing Anupama Pawar for GLC and Rui Rodrigues for Mumbai University, but clarified that it would be subject to the outcome of the writ petition. TNN

Now, MUHS moves to email question papers to exam centres to avoid leaks

Now, MUHS moves to email question papers to exam centres to avoid leaks

11.12.2024

Mumbai : The Maharashtra University of Health Sciences has decided to email its question papers directly to exam centres. In a bid to prevent any more mishaps of paper leakage, the varsity will implement the change immediately as per the decision taken in the Board of Examination meeting that took place on Tuesday. To date, MUHS was physically delivering question papers to every exam centre. However, fresh instructions have been released for the ongoing exam, and the new method of question paper delivery will be implemented for the three upcoming exams slated for Dec 11, 13, and 19. At least one question paper of the second-year final exam, Pharmacology 1, leaked, and the MUHS will hold a re-exam on Dec 19. After rumours of Pharmacology 2 surfaced, the university sent a fresh set of questions, and on Monday, the Pathology 2 questions were rumoured to have leaked, prompting a fresh question paper to be sent to exam centres.

Pension Rules Prevailing When Voluntary Retirement Is Sought Apply To Govt Officer, Not Rules As On Expiry Of Notice Period: MP High Court

Pension Rules Prevailing When Voluntary Retirement Is Sought Apply To Govt Officer, Not Rules As On Expiry Of Notice Period: MP High Court

Anukriti Mishra

10 Dec 2024 3:32 PM

The Indore bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court recently held that in cases of voluntary retirement, the Pension Rules as on the date of application of voluntary retirement shall be applicable and not the Rules prevailing on the date of expiration of the notice period of the government servant.

A single judge bench of Justice Vijay Kumar Shukla observed, “In case of voluntary retirement of an employee, the Rules prevailing on the date of application/notice under Rule 42(1)(a) will be applicable and not the Rules prevailing on the date of expiration of notice period.”

The court said, “The amendment in Rule 42 & 42-A of Pension Rules shall operate prospectively and not retrospectively.”

The issue raised before the court was “Whether in the case of voluntary retirement of an employee, the Rules on the date of application/notice under Rule 42(1)(a) of Pension Rules or the Rules prevailing on the date when one-month notice period expires would be applicable?”.

The court thus, referred to the provisions of Rule 42 of M.P. Pension Rules 1976. It inferred that the entire scheme of Rule 42 provides that once a notice in prescribed proforma is given, there is a specific bar of sub-rule (2) of Rule 42(1)(a) and the same cannot be withdrawn by the government servant without the approval of the competent authority.

The court said, “If the notice of voluntary retirement is not withdrawn before the date indicated in the said notice of voluntary retirement, it will automatically become operative from the date indicated in the notice of voluntary retirement and the Government Servant would be retired voluntarily from the date of his choice indicated in the said notice.”

The court further observed, “The intention of the Rule making authority is to confer an absolute and indefeasible right to the government servant to get voluntarily retire after completing qualifying services from the date on his choice indicated in the aforesaid notice.”

The present petition was filed seeking quashing of orders by which the application of the petitioner for voluntary retirement as per the unamended Rule of 42-A of M.P. Civil Services Pension Rules, 1976 prevailing at the time of the submission of the application was rejected.

The petitioner was appointed to the post of Assistant Surgeon/Insurance Health Officer in Directorate Employee State Insurance Services on an ad-hoc basis in 1985. The services of the petitioner were regularised in 1987. The petitioner submitted an application for voluntary retirement and served a notice on March 21, 2006.

On April 7, 2006 Rule 42 and 42-A of the Pension Rules were amended and as per Rule 42(1)(a) the minimum qualifying service for seeking voluntary retirement was raised from 15 years to 20 years. Further Rule 42-A was amended and earlier the qualifying service was increased with such period that would take an employee to the date of superannuation subject to a capping that the total service does not exceed 33 years.

However, after the amendment, as per Rule 42-A, a period of up to 5 years could only be added in the qualifying service, with a capping that the total service does not exceed 33 years. A formal order was issued accepting the application for voluntary retirement of the petitioner though no such formal order of acceptance was required to be passed under Rule 42 of Pension Rules. The Pension Payment Order (PPO) of the petitioner was prepared in 2009 where the total qualifying service of the petitioner was taken as 20 years 4 months and 5 days in contravention of Rule 42-A of the Pension Rules existing at the time of submission of application for voluntary retirement and issuance of notice Form 28.

The counsel for the petitioner submitted that the application of the petitioner for voluntary retirement/Notice form 28 shall be governed by the unamended provisions of Rule 42 and 42-A of Pension Rules as the amendment came into force on 07.04.2006. The said amendment would not be applicable retrospectively as an indefeasible right for seeking voluntary retirement under Rule 42 of Pension Rules has already vested on the date of filing of application itself.

The counsel for the respondents argued that in the application for voluntary retirement, the petitioner had intended the date of voluntary retirement w.e.f. 20.04.2006 and prior to the expiration of the notice period, the amendment had come into effect, therefore, the amended rules shall govern the application for voluntary retirement. It was further argued that the judgments relied upon by the petitioner were not applicable to the facts of the present case as in the present case, the amendment in the Rules had come into effect prior to expiration of notice period.

The court referred to a coordinate bench's decision in Dr. Umesh Chandra vs. State of M.P. & Ors. wherein it was held that the amended Rules cannot be made applicable with retrospective effect by which the period of service for voluntary retirement was enhanced to 25 years in place of 20 years.

The court held that the amendment in Rule 42 & 42-A of Pension Rules shall operate prospectively and not retrospectively.

The petition was thus, allowed and the orders were quashed.

“The respondents are directed to re-determine and add period of 10 years 2 months and 10 days w.e.f. 21.03.2006 to 31.05.2016 in the qualifying service of the petitioner and as a consequence to revise the pension, gratuity and other retiral benefits.”, the Court said.

Case Title: Dr. Yogesh Shah Versus Principal Secretary State Of M.P. And 4 Ors. And Others,

WRIT PETITION No. 5019 of 2012

Unauthorized Absence From Service, Sufficient Ground For Dismissal, Tripura High Court Upheld Employee's Termination

Unauthorized Absence From Service, Sufficient Ground For Dismissal, Tripura High Court Upheld Employee's Termination

Namdev Singh

10 Dec 2024 3:36 PM

A single judge bench in the High Court of Tripura, composed of Justice T Amarnath Goud ruled that the petitioner's unauthorized absence was a sufficient ground for his termination from the service as he was given sufficient opportunities to respond.

Background facts of the case

The petitioner (Employee) was appointed as a deputy secretary in the Tripura board of secondary education. He filed a writ petition under article 226 of the constitution of India, requesting for arrear pay and current salary along with the interest starting from the date of 13 July 2021. The employee claimed that he was rightfully present from 13.07.2021 to 31.07.2021, 16.12.2021 to 25.04.2023 and from 28.04.2023, asserting that he was reportedly marked absent despite attentively working on these days. Subsequently he issued a memorandum explaining his position to the authorities. In spite of this a disciplinary committee was set up , finding him guilty of grave irregularities and further recommended for his removal leading to his termination. The employee challenged the termination order on the grounds of Article 14 and violation of natural justice.

It was contended by the employee that the termination order which was passed was conflicting with the principles of natural justice. He argued that despite the submission of his explanation in the form of memorandum, the same was disregarded by the respondent- authorities. Also he claimed that no necessary opportunity was given to him for proper explanation and the issuance of show cause notice by the respondent was given without conducting a proper enquiry and was further violative of Rule-10 of Tripura Board of Secondary Education, 1982 (TBSE) Rule.

On the other hand, it was contended by the respondent firstly, that the employee was without authorization, absent from the dates presented above. Secondly, the respondent argued that proper opportunity was given to the employee before the issuance of notice. Also that fair chance of hearing was again given before the committee, and the rules and regulation of TBSE was followed on the date of passing. Thirdly, the opportunity to personally appear was also given to the employee, before the termination order.

Findings and observation of the court

It was observed by the court regarding the question of unauthorized absence on 13.07.2021 to 31.07.2021, 16.12.2021 to 25.04.2023 and from 28.04.2023, the employee failed to adequately provide sufficient evidence to determine that he was present during those days, such as affidavits, colleagues or attendance records including that he was present on those days. This lack of evidence led the court to conclude that he was not attending on those days.

The case of Krushnakant B. Parmar v. Union of India and Another (2012) was relied upon by the court wherein the Supreme Court held that absence from duty due to compelling circumstances beyond the employee's control, such as illness or hospitalization, cannot be considered willful. While such absence may amount to unauthorized absence, it does not automatically qualify as misconduct.

The D.K. Yadav v. J.M.A. Industries Ltd. (1993), as well as State of Orissa v. Dr. (Miss) Binapani Dei and Another cases were also relied upon by the court wherein the Supreme Court held that natural justice requires that no adverse action be taken against the affected individual without informing them and providing a fair opportunity to respond. Even administrative orders involving termination of employment, must comply with procedural fairness under Article 14 of the Constitution.

Further the case of Life Insurance Corporation of India v. Om Prakash was relied upon by the court wherein the Supreme Court held that an employee abandoning service without informing the employer and securing alternate employment cannot claim relief for termination based on procedural lapses. The Court emphasized that such conduct disentitles the employee from relief under Article 226 of the Constitution, as procedural deficiencies do not override clear evidence of abandonment and misconduct.

It was found by the court that the employee was given more than two opportunities for his explanation including personal hearing before the final order, leading to court concluding that the Rule 10 of TBSE was followed.

It was held by the court that employee was on unauthorized absence from the service which is a sufficient ground for termination as he was given multiple opportunities to respond. Therefore, the court dismissed the writ petition, upholding the employee's termination.

Case no. : WP(C) No. 797 of 2023

Counsel for the petitioner: P. Roy Barman, Sr. Advocate; S. Bhattacharjee, Advocate; K. Nath, Advocate

Counsel for the respondent: D. Sarma, Addl. G.A. ; Ratan Datta, Advocate

Entire Service Record, Character Rolls & Confidential Reports Of Employee Need To Be Considered Before Passing Order Of Premature Retirement : Chhattisgarh High Court

Entire Service Record, Character Rolls & Confidential Reports Of Employee Need To Be Considered Before Passing Order Of Premature Retirement : Chhattisgarh High Court

Namdev Singh

10 Dec 2024 10:00 PM

A single judge bench of the Chhattisgarh High Court comprising of Justice Rakesh Mohan Pandey, while deciding writ petition held that the Government should form opinion that the government employee needs to be compulsorily retired from service only after considering the entire service record, character rolls & confidential reports.

Background Facts

The petitioner was appointed as a daily-rated employee under the respondent. On 29.01.2005, the employee was appointed on the post of Driver against the sanctioned post. On 11.06.2012, the nomenclature of the post of the employee was changed from Driver to Driver (Heavy Vehicle). Thereafter, the petitioner was extended the benefit of the 5th pay-scale as recommended by the committee.

A criminal case was registered against the employee for the commission of offences punishable u/s 186, 294, 353 and 506 of IPC. Ultimately, it was settled between the parties and an acquittal order dated 11.06.2010 was passed. A departmental inquiry was instituted against the employee in 2009, in which punishment of stoppage of one increment with cumulative effect was inflicted upon him.

The employee obtained ACRs from 01.04.2011 till 31.03.2017. He had not completed seven years of regular service, but was compulsorily retired from service on account of attaining 50 years of age vide order dated 17.11.2017.

Aggrieved by the same, the employee filed the writ petition challenging the order dated 17.11.17. He prayed to direct the respondent to re-instate his service with all consequential benefits under the department.

It was contended by the employee that the respondent authorities failed to assess the ACRs of the entire service while passing the order of compulsory retirement. He further submitted that his conduct remained good during his service career and there were no complaints against him.

It was further contended by the employee that the he was inflicted with punishment of stoppage of one increment with non-cumulative effect and the order is under challenge before the appellate authority. He argued that the order of punishment cannot be made the basis for the punishment of compulsory retirement.

On the other hand, it was contended by the respondent that the employee was compulsorily retired as he attained 50 years of age and his overall ACRs were below average. They also submitted that the overall conduct of the employee was taken into consideration by the reviewing committee while passing the order of compulsory retirement. The respondent also mentioned about the departmental inquiry and the criminal case, which was registered against the employee.

Findings of the Court

It was observed by the court that Fundamental Rule No. 56(2)(a) states that if a government servant has completed 20 years of service or has attained 50 years of age, in that case, the State can take the decision to compulsorily retire such an employee. According to this circular, it would not be necessary to communicate the adverse remarks to such government servant. It was observed by the court that the overall grade of the employee was average or below average.

The case of Baikuntha Nath Das & Anr. Vs. Chief District Medical Officer, Baripada & Ors. (1992) was relied upon by the court, wherein the Supreme Court held that an order of compulsory retirement is not a punishment. The government have to consider the entire record of service before taking a decision in the matter, attaching more importance to record of and performance during the later years. An order of compulsory retirement is not liable to be quashed by a Court merely on the showing that while passing it uncommunicated adverse remarks were also taken into consideration.

The case of State of Gujarat and another Vs. Suryakant Chunilal Shah, (1999) was also relied upon, wherein Court held that mere involvement of the employee in a criminal case would constitute sufficient ground for compulsory retirement.

The case of Nand Kumar Verma Vs. State of Jharkhand & Ors. (2012) was relied upon by court where it was held that the employee cannot be prematurely retired from service by selectively taking into consideration the service record for certain years. Therefore the track record and service record should be taken for complete service period and premature retirement can only be ordered based on the sufficient or relevant material.

Further the case of S. Ramachandra Raju Vs. State of Orissa, (1994) was also relied upon by the court wherein it was held that in case of compulsory retirement, the government employee is entitled to draw all retiral benefits including pension. The Government should form the opinion that the government employee needs to be compulsorily retired from service only after considering the entire service record or character rolls or confidential reports.

It was observed by the court that the un-communicated adverse remarks cannot be made a basis to disturb the finding recorded by the competent authority. Also that an order of compulsory retirement is not a punishment and does not have any stigma attached to it.

It was held by the court that the decision with regard to compulsory retirement was taken by the State authorities in public interest. With the aforesaid observations, the writ petition was dismissed.

Case No. : WPS No. 2547 of 2020

Counsel for the Petitioner : Manoj Kumar Sinha, Advocate

Counsel for the Respondents : Suyash Dhar Badgaiya, Dy.G.A

Daughter Who Became Widowed/ Divorced After Death Of Govt Employee Parent Falls Outside “Family” Under Pension Rules: Rajasthan HC

Daughter Who Became Widowed/ Divorced After Death Of Govt Employee Parent Falls Outside “Family” Under Pension Rules: Rajasthan HC

Nupur Agrawal

10 Dec 2024 10:00 PM

Daughter Who Became Widowed/ Divorced After Death Of Govt Employee Parent Falls Outside “Family” Under Pension Rules: Rajasthan HC

Rajasthan High Court rejected a bunch of writ petitions filed by daughters claiming family pension pursuant to their respective parents' death who were government employees, on the basis of them attaining status of a widow or a divorcee, subsequent to their parents' demise.

The bench of Justice Dinesh Mehta ruled that the relevant date for determining family's right to receive family pension was the date of retirement or the date of death of the government servant, and accordingly, for a daughter to be eligible for father's pension, she must have a status of a widow or a divorcee on such a date. Her status subsequent to the father's death would not render her the right to claim family pension.

“since the Government servant had passed away on 20.09.2017 and on such fateful day, the petitioner was having a surviving matrimony and as she was obviously not a widowed daughter, she cannot be brought within the realm of definition of “family” defined under the Rule 66 of the Rules of 1996 by any stretch of statutory interpretation.”

The Court was hearing a bunch of writ petitions in this regard in which the case of Sarla Devi Acharya (“petitioner”) was taken as the lead case.

The Petitioner's father, who was a government employee, retired in 1982 and used to get family pension under the Rajasthan Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1996 (“the Rules”) till he passed away in 2017. At that time, the petitioner was married to her husband, however, her husband also passed away in 2023.

After her husband's death, the petitioner filed an application claiming family pension under Rules 66 and 67 of the Rules, which was rejected. Against this decision, the writ petition was moved before the Court.

It was the case of the petitioner that Rules 66 and 67 included widowed daughter which entitled her to receive the family pension. Furthermore, it was also submitted that a clarification dated January 16, 2023, (“the Clarification”) was also issued by the Pension and Pensioners Welfare Department which clarified that even if the daughter became a widow after the government employee's death, she was entitled to the family pension.

On the contrary, the counsel for the respondents argued that since petitioner's mother had already passed away earlier, the family pension stopped immediately on the death of the father in 2017, and the petitioner could not claim her dependency on father and resulting revival of the pension because of subsequent death of her husband since she was married on the day of her father's death.

Furthermore, the counsel also submitted that the Clarification was contrary to the scheme of the Rules and therefore the latter would prevail. It was also pointed out that now, the Finance Department had also clarified that daughter of a government employee who became widow or divorcee after the employee's death could not claim family pension.

After hearing contentions from both sides, the Court framed the question to be answered as: “Whether a married daughter whose matrimonial ties are severed due to death of her husband or dissolution of marriage, that too on a date posterior to the death of the Government servant is entitled to pension under the Rules of 1996 or not?”

The Court opined that the relevant date to be considered for ascertaining family's right to family pension was the date of employee's retirement or death. It was held that in the present case the relevant date was the one in 2017 and if on that date, the employee had any widowed/ divorced daughter(s), she would have been entitled for the family pension. However, the petitioner's husband was alive in 2017 and passed away only in 2023 which brought her outside “family” as defined under the Rules.

“For a daughter to be eligible to earn pension under the Rules of 1996, she must have a status of widow or a divorcee' – her status subsequent to the death of the Government servant cannot clothe her with a right to claim family pension under the subject Rules.”

The Court further made a reference to the case of Union of India & Ors. Vs. Ratna Sarkar of the Calcutta High Court in which it was held that the legislative intent was never to include a daughter in the family pension, who was married at the time of the pensioner's death. Hence, a daughter who became widowed after the pensioner's demise, had no right to claim family pension.

Furthermore, the Court also rejected the Clarification relied upon by the petitioner, by making a reference to a division bench case of the Court, viz., Union of India & Ors. Vs. Smt. Hemlata Sharma & Anr. in which it was ruled that,

“By administrative circulars, a new class or category which otherwise was not included for the purposes of grant of family pension, could not be included as that would amount to supplanting the rules… None of the provisions contained in Rule 75 of the Rules of 1993 indicate that the rule ever sought to include a divorced/widowed daughter, who was otherwise leading a married life on the date of death of her father, the retired employee or even on the date of death of her widowed mother, who was getting family pension.”

In this light, the Court held that since the Clarification issued was completely contrary to the scheme of the Rules, it could not be given any credence.

Accordingly, the writ petitions were dismissed.

Title: Sarla Devi Acharya v the District and Sessions judge & Ors. and other connected petitions

Citation: 2024 LiveLaw (Raj) 391

NEWS TODAY 10.12.2024

 

Techie ends life over ‘₹3cr demand’ by wife, in-laws Suicide Sparks Debate Over Men’s Rights & Mental Health

Techie ends life over ‘₹3cr demand’ by wife, in-laws Suicide Sparks Debate Over Men’s Rights & Mental Health 

TIMES NEWS NETWORK 11.12.2024

Bengaluru : The suicide of a Bengaluru-based 34-year-old automobile company executive amid a bitter legal battle over divorce, child custody and estranged wife’s Rs 3.3 crore demand has ignited an intense debate on men’s rights and mental health. A police complaint filed by his brother Bikas Kumar alleged that his wife and in-laws demanded Rs 3 crore to withdraw police cases against him and Rs 30 lakh to grant him visitation rights to see his son. Subhash Atul was found dead in his apartment in Marathahalli area early Monday, leaving behind a detailed suicide note and a video outlining the alleged harassment he faced from his wife Nikita Singhania and her family. Based on these allegations, police have registered a case of abetment to suicide against Nikita, her mother Nisha, brother Anurag, and uncle Sushil Singhania.

“My brother was mentally and physically exhausted ever since the court battle started. Every time he attended the court hearing, he was mocked by his in-laws and told to die if he could not pay the money or pay for the visitation rights. These drove him to take the extreme step,” Bikas said. Atul’s 24-page suicide note and recorded video, which have since gone viral, accuse his in-laws of filing eight “false” police complaints and manipulating the legal system. He also charged a family court judge in UP, where the custody and divorce hearings were under way, with bias in favour of his in-laws. “It is better for me to end my life as the money that I am earning is only making my enemies stronger as I have to pay them... This cycle will keep continuing. With my own money that I pay

as taxes, the courts and the police system will harass both me and my family members along with other people. The supply of the value should be cut. Anyway, they (in-laws) have been suggesting me to commit suicide,” Atul said in the note. He also urged authorities not to allow his in-laws near his body and requested that his last rites not be performed until his “harassers” are brought to justice. “Despite all these, if the accused are allowed to go scot-free, just dump my ashes into a gutter near the court. This way, I can know how life is valued in this country,” he wrote. In his final message, Atul apologised to his parents for being unable to care for them in their old age.

SC: Maintenance to wife will get priority over claim of creditors

SC: Maintenance to wife will get priority over claim of creditors

Dhananjay.Mahapatra@timesofindia.com 11.12.2024

New Delhi : In a significant decision, Supreme Court on Monday ruled that maintenance payable to the estranged wife and children would get priority over claims of secured, financial and operational creditors over the assets of a husband’s firm facing proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. A bench of Justices Surya Kant and Ujjal Bhuyan refused to buy the excuse of the husband that he was not earning well to pay the huge arrears of interim maintenance fixed by the SC for his estranged wife and children and that his diamond factory was run ning in loss. 

“We direct that the charge of arrears of maintenance, payable to the respondents, shall have preferential right over the assets of the appellant, over and above the rights of a secured creditor or similar right holders under the insolvency framework,” it said. It ordered, “Wherever such proceedings are pending, that forum is directed to ensure that the arrears of maintenance are released to the respondents forthwith. No objection of any secured creditor, operational creditor or any other claim shall be entertained opposing the entitlement of the respondents for maintenance.” 

The bench justified its order by giving priority to maintenance over claims of creditors by saying, “Right to maintenance is commensurate with the right to sustenance. This right is a subset of the right to dignity and a dignified life, which in turn flows from Article 21 of the Constitution of India. “In a way, the right to maintenance being equivalent to a fundamental right will be superior to and have overriding effect than the statutory rights afforded to financial creditors, secured creditors, operational creditors or any other such claimants encompassed within the waterfall mechanism under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, or similar such laws.”

The SC said if the husband failed to pay arrears of maintenance to the wife, the family court “shall take coercive action against the husband and, if so required, may auction the immovable assets for the purpose of recovery of arrears of maintenance”

UGC: CUET to help students break disciplinary barriers ‘It’s Time For Universities To Adopt Open-Minded Policies’

UGC: CUET to help students break disciplinary barriers ‘It’s Time For Universities To Adopt Open-Minded Policies’ 

Manash.Gohain@timesofindia.com 11.12.2024

New Delhi : M Jagadesh Kumar, chairperson, UGC while elaborating on the changes in CUETUG 2025, gave reasons for reverting back to computer-based test (CBT) following the controversies this year, reducing the number of subjects, making all questions compulsory, and standardising test durations for logistical efficiency as well as allowing students to appear for any subject irrespective of their class XII board subjects. 

● UGC is framing guidelines to allow students to pursue subjects at undergraduate level which they have not studied in school. Will CUET-UG allow candidates to appear in subjects they have not studied earlier? 

In CUET, students can write any subject paper independent of what they studied in school. For instance, an arts student can now pursue physics at the UG level if they acquire the necessary competency, even through self-learning. NEP 2020 encourages breaking disciplinary boundaries, and CUET enables this shift. Universities need to amend their ordinances and adopt open-minded policies. Some universities currently restrict admissions to students with prior school-level expertise in specific subjects, which contradicts NEP 2020’s ethos. Universities must facilitate interdisciplinary migration to truly benefit from CUET’s flexibility. 

● Will there be a limit on the number of subjects students can opt for in CUET-UG?

 For CUET-UG 2025, students can choose up to five subjects, down from six last year. Our data show most students select four subjects, so this change provides flexibility while making exam logistics smoother. This adjustment also allows us to allocate centres closer to students’ preferences. 

● What are the key changes planned for CUET-UG 2025? 

We are standardising the exam duration to 60 minutes for all papers, with each carrying 250 marks. Students will now answer all 40 questions, eliminating choices to ensure a fair and comprehensive evaluation. The shift to mandatory questions reduces bias caused by varying difficulty levels of optional questions. 

● What will be the format of the CUET-UG 2025? 

CUET-UG and PG will primarily use CBT, as recommended by Dr Radhakrishnan’s committee. CBT minimises risks like paper leaks and ensures greater reliability.

 ● What other changes are being introduced for CUET-UG? 

The medium of the exam will remain in 13 languages. However, for 20 less commonly chosen languages, including foreign and some Indian languages, we will use the General Aptitude Test for admissions. Additionally, six domain-specific subjects with low registrations— entrepreneurship, teaching aptitude, fashion studies, tourism, legal studies, and engineering graphics—will also shift to the aptitude test. These changes reduce the total papers from 63 to 37, streamlining logistics.

 ● When will the CUET-UG and PG schedules be announced? 

The schedules will likely be released in December. CUET-PG is planned for March 2025, while CUET-UG will follow the bo ard exams, likely in May.

 ● Delays in result announcements have been a concern… With the CBT format, result processing will be faster. However, certain steps, like response validation by subject experts, are essential to maintain accuracy. We aim to streamline these processes to minimise delays. 

● Do you anticipate more registrations in 2025? 

Last year saw 13.47 lakh registrations, and with more universities adopting CUET, we expect this number to rise.

 ● What role does coaching play in CUET-UG preparation?

 A. Minimal. Students who focus on their board exams perform well in CUET-UG, as its difficulty level is moderate. The feedback from students confirms this, emphasising the test’s accessibility. 

● What has been CUET’s biggest advantage and challenge so far? 

CUET ensures a level playing field by eliminating biases inherent in board evaluations and fostering diversity in universities. However, logistical challenges, like conducting the exam twice  a year or enabling on-demand testing, remain. With infrastructure growth, we hope to offer more flexible options in the future

DMK, AIADMK spar over who is to blame for 2015 floods ‘CAG Said 2015 Flood, A Man-made’

DMK, AIADMK spar over who is to blame for 2015 floods ‘CAG Said 2015 Flood, A Man-made’

TIMES NEWS NETWORK  11.12.2024 

Chennai : The Chembarambakkam fiasco continued to haunt AIADMK nine years after the disastrous 2015 floods that ravaged Chennai. DMK and AIADMK locked horns in the state assembly on Tuesday over the issue of water release from the lake and consequent flooding. While chief minister M K Stalin and other ministers said floods in 2015 were caused by unannounced water release from Chembarambakkam lake, AIADMK general secretary Edappadi K Palaniswami argued Adyar river had more carrying capacity than what was released from Chembarambakkam Lake.

“Water was released from Chembarambakkam lake without prior intimation, leading to the death of more than 250 people. Even the CAG report tabled in 2018 made it clear that it was aman-made disaster. There was a problem in seeking permission to open the dam on time, and as the permission could not be obtained, the dam was opened without prior intimation,” Stalin said. 

Palaniswami responded, saying Chembarambakkam lake was constructed for drinking water purposes and only a total of 29,000 cusecs were released from the lake that day. As the total carrying capacity of Adyar river was one lakh cusecs, the release of water at 29,000 cusecs from the lake did not cause flooding. Excess water from more than 100 lakes downstream of Chembarambakkam lake flowed in to Adyar river and resulted in the flooding, said Palaniswami. “Opening of Chembarambakkam lake did not result in flooding in Adyar River. It was the excess rain that resulted in lakes getting filled up quickly, resulting in flooding in Adyar river,” said Palaniswami. 

Health minister Ma Subramanian said the carrying capacity of the river was not one lakh cusecs. “I still reside by the side of Adyar river, and if water is released at 10,000 to 15,000 cusecs there will be flooding in the river,” Subramanian said. He also issued a challenge to Palaniswami, asking him to bring experts from IIT Madras to check the capacity of Adyar river. HR and CE minister P K Sekarbabu argued Chennai had seen severe rainfall in the last 45 years, but never before was the death toll so high as in 2015.

SASTRA offers one-year free vocational training course with monthly stipend

SASTRA offers one-year free vocational training course with monthly stipend

The Hindu Bureau

THANJAVUR 11.12.2024

SASTRA, a deemed university, will offer a one-year free vocational training course. Persons who have cleared their 8th Standard annual examinations are eligible to join this course jointly organised by SASTRA and Shanmuga Precision Forgings with financial assistance from the Union Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

The candidates would be provided training in C.N.C.Machine, forging, welding and desk top computing with monthly stipend of ₹5,000.

On completion of the course, a certificate would be issued by SASTRA.

Apart from stipend, lunch would be provided to the students free of cost.

Aspiring candidates can register their names before December 25 either by appearing in person at Shanmuga Precision Forgings in SASTRA Thirumalaisamudhram campus or by dialling 99949 67805 or 63837 55260, according to an official release.

CAG finds lapses in functioning of TNMSC

 CAG finds lapses in functioning of TNMSC

The Hindu Bureau  11.12.2024

CHENNAI

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India has found several deficiencies in the functioning of the Tamil Nadu Medical Services Corporation (TNMSC).

In its report tabled in the Assembly on Tuesday, the CAG highlighted issues of non-supply/short supply of drugs to hospitals, deficiencies such as procuring of short-expiry drugs and non-blacklisting of suppliers, and problems in quality control (QC).

The CAG’s performance audit on ‘Public Health Infrastructure and Management of Health Services’ pointed out that during 2016-2021, 185 suppliers provided 1,447 drugs, manufactured much earlier than 30 days before the date of supply.

Audit scrutiny revealed that such drugs costing ₹11.12 crore had expired while in stock during 2016-2021. It noted that the suppliers had replaced the expired items only in 13 instances, of which 10 were during 2020-2021 or later.

The audit observed that during 2016-2021, in 13,922 cases, drugs lying in warehouses for over six months were not sent for quality testing. During the same period, in 19 instances, drugs supplied by different suppliers failed quality check in government laboratories more than two times. Suppliers were not blacklisted in 14 instances.

While the TNMSC replied that suppliers were not blacklisted as penalty was imposed instead, the audit said that instances of failures in quality testing were very high.

Proof: How Allu Arjun Making Other Heroes Jealous

Proof: How Allu Arjun Making Other Heroes Jealous

 By M9 Updated 21:40 December 10, 2024

Allu Arjun’s Pushpa 2 has been breaking records in the Hindi belt and is a massive box office hit. It shows no signs of slowing down anytime soon. In the South, Allu Arjun’s performance is dominating more than anything. 

His cult acting has made a huge impact, clearly visible everywhere. There’s no doubt that his performance will make other stars jealous. It elevates him to another level as a performer.  Fans of every Telugu star are creating AI images of their heroes in the explosive Jatra episode, imagining them in Pushpa Raj’ role. These images are flooding social media. After seeing Allu Arjun’s performance, it’s clear that none of these stars would fit in that role. 

His delivery and the impact he created in the Jathara episode are unmatched. Allu Arjun and his character, Pushpa Raj, have become the subject of jealousy for fans of every star hero. Everyone feels not just jealousy but a desire for their heroes to deliver powerful mass masala films with performances like his.

Read more at: https://www.m9.news/movienews/proof-how-allu-arjun-making-other-heroes-jealous/

MATCHSTICK TO MOVIE MOGUL

MATCHSTICK TO MOVIE MOGUL 

TIMES OF INDIA  CHENNAI EDITION 11.12.2024

How S M Nayagam from Thanjavur became the ‘father of Sinhala Talkies’

Meenakshi Devaraj Matchstick maker, soap manufacturer, prawn exporter, gemstone trader and finally, the ‘father of Sinhala Talkies’ — though S M Nayagam managed to make a mark in several industries, the story of the man from Thanjavur remains largely untold. It all began in the 19th century, when Sundaram Pillai and Veerama, traders from Thanjavur in what was then the Madras Presidency, decided to move to Kotahena, a suburb of Ceylon (now Sri Lanka). Veerama returned to Thanjavur and gave birth to a son, Madhura Nayagam (meaning leader), on Sept 24, 1906, then returned to Sri Lanka, where he was raised. 

Madhura, who later changed his name to S M Nayagam, began his career as a clerk at Ford Cargo Corporation, until he noticed that the matchstick industry was taking off. Nayagam then travelled from Sri Lanka to Kumbakonam to learn wooden matchstick-making, returned with the skill and taught his wife, Deivanai, and sisters, Rajalakshmi and Jagathambal, to make them. He would ask them to produce as many sticks as they could in their free time, and after work, Nayagam would take over and handle the chemical dipping, bundling, packaging and sales of his ‘Swasthika Matchsticks’. He was among the pioneers in Sri Lanka’s matchstick industry. Inspired by the Swadeshi movement — Nayagam established a local manufacturing unit, Swadeshi Industrial Works, in 1941, in Kandana, where he lived. He produced soaps, for which he sourced sandalwood from Mysore, and later expanded to include various herbal soaps, such as neem. These products were even exported to places like America in the early 20th century. Nayagam travelled the world to gather ideas from successful business ventures and introduced several new industries to Sri Lanka, including the manufacturing of glasses, aluminium and plastics. Soon, his relatives in Thanjavur established their own businesses under the name Swadeshi. 

As the Indian entertainment industry began to flourish, Nayagam’s attention shifted toward cinema. In 1939, he established the studio Chitra Kala Movietone at Thirunagar in Madurai, where many South Indian films were produced. The studio was equipped with all the modern facilities of its time. Alongside the studio, Nayagam also founded a production company and began making Tamil films. His first Tamil film, ‘Kumaraguru’, was released in 1946. In 1947, he released ‘Thainadu’ (meaning ‘Motherland’), a patriotic film, timed to coincide with India’s independence. Until the early 1940s, only English or Indian language films were screened in Sri Lanka. One day, while casually speaking with his Sinhala friends, Nayagam learned of their desire to watch a movie in their own mother tongue. A shrewd businessman, Nayagam immediately recognised the opportunity behind the demand for a Sinhala talkie. He quickly set to work on producing the first one. Nayagam noticed the success of Tamil dramas and plays being adapted into hit films and believed this concept could work in Sinhala as well. He adapted the popular Sinhala play ‘Kadawunu Poronduwa’ (meaning ‘Broken Promise’) into a movie. The entire shooting of this first Sinhala talkie took place at Nayagam’s studio in Madurai. He brought a team from Sri Lanka to Madras, taking great care of them, even arranging for a medical team to attend to any health needs during production. Nayagam released Kadawunu Poronduwa on Jan 21, 1947. It was a massive hit, earning Nayagam the title of the ‘Father of Sinhala Talkies’. Nayagam continued producing Sinhala films, bringing many technicians and artists from South India, such as A S Nagara jan and A B Raj, to establish the early Sinhala film industry. One of the major successes from Nayagam’s production house was ‘Mathalan’ (1955). A remake of the Tamil blockbuster ‘Mangamma Sabatham’ (produced by AVM), ‘Mathalan’ was made entirely in Madras Vahini Studio due to the need for lavish sets. It ran in theatres for years, breaking all box-office records. 

On May 30, 1950, Nayagam established Sri Murugan Navakala studio in Kandana, at a cost of ₹3 lakh. The inauguration of his studio was celebrated with a festive welcome in Sri Lanka. It also attracted many south Indian technicians. Nayagam’s home in Kandana became a gathering spot for prominent figures from the Tamil film industry, including Sivaji Ganesan, Gemini Ganesan, Nagesh, Major Sundarrajan and the Travancore Sisters (Lalitha, Padmini, and Ragini). One of Nayagam’s unfulfilled dreams was to create a film based on the Jataka  tales, a Buddhist story set in Madras. He even announced this ambitious project at a press conference at Madras Woodlands. Nayagam, a pioneer in nearly five industries in Sri Lanka, died on Feb 4, 1978, at the age of 72. 

Following his death, many of his family members were forced to relocate to various parts of the world due to the riots in Sri Lanka during the 1980s. The family was deeply moved when they saw the remnants of Nayagam’s Chitra Kala Studio in Madurai. The site where the studio once operated has since been transformed into a housing colony, with the name Chitrakala still attached. A portion of the building, bearing the word Chitrakala, remains to this day as a tribute to the man from Thanjavur who took Sri Lanka by storm. 

(The writer is a researcher on Tamil culture) Email your feedback with name and address to southpole.toi@timesofindia.com GANDHI, GODS AND GLOBAL EXPANSIONS ➤ Nayagam was a voracious reader with a deep love for his mother tongue Tamil ➤ His grandsons Rajeev and Sanjeev recall how he carefully preserved letters from Mahatma Gandhi ➤ He was a devout follower of Lord Murugan of Thiruparankundram. His office was adorned in red velvet and featured a statue of Lord Murugan at its centre. Nayagam combined business trips to Tamil Nadu with visits to Murugan temples ➤ Nayagam was also involved in prawn export and gemstone trade. His enterprises were so successful that he expanded internationally with units in places such as Hong Kong ➤ Nayagam’s niece, Shaantha Jayaraj, is working to compile information about his life